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Question Bank

20 exam-style MCQs on local anaesthesia, exodontia, trauma and anatomy. Pick an answer to see the explanation and the textbook page it comes from.

Written from standard OMFS textbooks; page numbers are printed book pages. The full bank is in progress.

Question 1 of 20 · Local anaesthesiaIn the Gow-Gates mandibular block, where should the needle tip end up?
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Answer: B. Gow-Gates is a true mandibular (V3) block given high, at the condylar neck, about 10–25 mm above the mandibular occlusal plane with the mouth wide open. Option A is the conventional IANB target; option D describes the Vazirani–Akinosi closed-mouth block.

Malamed, Handbook of Local Anesthesia, 7th ed, ch 14, pp 251–252

Question 2 of 20 · Local anaesthesiaWhich intraoral injection has the highest rate of positive aspiration?
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Answer: A. Malamed gives 10–15% positive aspiration for the IANB, the highest of all intraoral techniques. Gow-Gates is about 2%, the PSA about 3% and the ASA under 1%. Always aspirate, in two planes for the IANB.

Malamed, 7th ed, ch 14, pp 241, 250; ch 13, pp 209, 214

Question 3 of 20 · Local anaesthesiaA patient with trismus from an infected lower molar can barely open. Which mandibular block is designed for this?
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Answer: C. The Vazirani–Akinosi block is given with the teeth gently together, so it works when opening is limited. The motor block comes on quickly, so the patient often starts to open wider. The IANB and Gow-Gates both need a wide-open mouth; a mental block does not reach the molar pulps.

Malamed, 7th ed, ch 14, pp 240, 251, 254–258

Question 4 of 20 · Local anaesthesiaDuring an IANB the needle goes to its usual depth without touching bone. Why should you not inject?
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Answer: B. No bone contact means the needle is too far posterior, possibly in the parotid near the facial nerve. Withdraw, bring the barrel back over the molars and re-advance until you touch bone. If it happens, the palsy lasts as long as the soft-tissue anaesthesia: the patient can't close the eye, but the corneal reflex is intact.

Malamed, 7th ed, ch 14, pp 244–245; ch 17, pp 316–317

Question 5 of 20 · Local anaesthesiaAfter a successful PSA block, which part of the maxillary first molar may still be sensitive?
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Answer: C. The PSA numbs the third, second and first molars, but the whole first molar in only about 72%. In about 28% the mesiobuccal root is supplied by the middle superior alveolar nerve, so a second (usually supraperiosteal) injection may be needed.

Malamed, 7th ed, ch 13, pp 207–208

Question 6 of 20 · Local anaesthesiaMalamed calls which injection "potentially the most traumatic intraoral injection"?
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Answer: A. The nasopalatine block numbs the anterior hard palate from canine to canine. To keep it comfortable: topical and pressure anaesthesia, insert beside (not into) the incisive papilla, no deeper than 5 mm, and deposit no more than 0.45 mL slowly.

Malamed, 7th ed, ch 13, pp 222–223

Question 7 of 20 · ExodontiaAccording to Peterson, which angulation of impacted mandibular third molar is the most difficult to remove?
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Answer: D. Peterson: mesioangular (about 45%) is the least difficult, vertical (40%) and horizontal (10%) are intermediate, and distoangular (5%) is the most difficult. More distal bone must come off, and the tooth tends to be elevated back into the ramus.

Peterson's Principles of OMS, 3rd ed, ch 5, pp 107, 110

Question 8 of 20 · ExodontiaPeterson says the difficulty of removing an impacted tooth is determined primarily by which two factors?
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Answer: B. Full bony impactions are always harder than soft-tissue ones, and of two impactions at the same depth, the one in the older patient is always harder. Peterson notes that angulation, ramus relationship and root morphology may have little influence on the time surgery takes.

Peterson's Principles of OMS, 3rd ed, ch 5, p 107

Question 9 of 20 · ExodontiaIn the Pell and Gregory depth classification, what is position B?
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Answer: B. Position A is at or above the occlusal plane, B is between the occlusal plane and the second molar's cervical line, and C is below that cervical line. Option D is Class II of the ramus relationship, a separate part of the same classification.

Malik, Textbook of OMS, 5th ed, ch 20, p 314

Question 10 of 20 · TraumaSeen on a lateral view, which mandibular angle fracture is horizontally unfavourable?
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Answer: B. The elevators (masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid) pull the posterior fragment upwards. A line running downwards and backwards lets them do it, so it is unfavourable; downwards and forwards locks the fragment, so it is favourable. Option C describes a vertically favourable line (top view).

Rowe & Williams, Maxillofacial Injuries, vol 1, ch 1, pp 11–12; Malik, 5th ed, ch 33, p 608

Question 11 of 20 · TraumaWhy does Champy's technique for angle fractures use a single miniplate along the superior border?
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Answer: B. At the angle the superior border is under tension and the inferior border under compression, so a monocortical miniplate on the superior border has the mechanical advantage. Champy (1978) described it; it is called functionally stable because it allows function, even with some interfragmentary motion.

Fonseca et al, Oral and Maxillofacial Trauma, 4th ed, ch 33, pp 812–813

Question 12 of 20 · AnatomyIn the preauricular approach to the TMJ, which facial nerve branches are most likely to be damaged?
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Answer: A. The temporal branches cross the zygomatic arch, on average about 2 cm (0.8–3.5 cm) in front of the external auditory canal. Ellis and Zide advise incising the temporalis fascia and arch periosteum no more than 0.8 cm in front of the canal's anterior border.

Ellis & Zide, Surgical Approaches to the Facial Skeleton, 3rd ed, ch 12, p 194

Question 13 of 20 · ExodontiaYou suspect a fresh oroantral communication after extracting an upper first molar. What should you avoid?
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Answer: C. Exploring a fresh suspected defect with an instrument can break down the clot and turn a communication into a fistula. Malik calls radiographs the best way to detect an OAC, and the gentle nose-blow test is useful when it isn't obvious.

Malik, Textbook of OMS, 5th ed, ch 41, pp 910–911; AOMSI textbook, ch 24, p 494

Question 14 of 20 · ExodontiaWhat is the main drawback of closing an oroantral fistula with a buccal advancement flap?
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Answer: C. The buccal advancement (Rehrmann) flap is advanced over the defect after the periosteum is scored at its base. The price is a shallower vestibule, which can matter for a future denture.

Peterson's Principles of OMS, 3rd ed, ch 40, p 881; AOMSI textbook, ch 24, p 500

Question 15 of 20 · AnatomyDuring an external carotid ligation, how do you confirm which vessel is the ECA?
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Answer: B. The internal carotid does not branch in the neck. Identify the ECA by its first two anterior branches and double-ligate between the superior thyroid and the lingual. Don't tie it at its root, where thrombus can spread into the ICA.

Kademani & Tiwana, Atlas of OMS, ch 61, p 656; Malik, 5th ed, p 1147

Question 16 of 20 · AnatomyWhich is the only medial branch of the external carotid artery?
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Answer: C. Three anterior branches (superior thyroid, lingual, facial), two posterior (occipital, posterior auricular), one medial (ascending pharyngeal) and two terminal (maxillary, superficial temporal). The ascending pharyngeal is small and arises low, near the bifurcation.

Fonseca et al, Oral and Maxillofacial Trauma, 4th ed, ch 10, pp 198–199

Question 17 of 20 · TraumaOn testing maxillary mobility, you feel movement at the nasofrontal suture. Which injury does this suggest?
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Answer: B. Grasp the anterior maxilla and move it while the other hand steadies the nasal bridge. In a Le Fort I the nasal bridge doesn't move. Movement at the nasofrontal suture means the fracture is higher: Le Fort II or III.

Peterson's Principles of OMS, 3rd ed, ch 20, pp 457–458; Rowe & Williams, vol 1, ch 4, pp 118–119

Question 18 of 20 · TraumaEcchymosis in the region of the greater palatine foramen (Guérin's sign) points to which fracture?
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Answer: A. Guérin's sign is palatal bruising near the greater palatine foramen in a Le Fort I (Guérin) fracture. A Le Fort I alone doesn't involve the orbit, so it gives no circumorbital bruising.

Rowe & Williams, vol 1, ch 4, pp 108, 114; Malik, 5th ed, ch 31, p 567

Question 19 of 20 · TraumaIn the Gillies temporal approach to a depressed zygomatic arch, where must the elevator pass?
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Answer: B. The deep temporal fascia attaches to the upper border of the arch, while temporalis runs beneath the arch to the coronoid. The space between them leads straight under the arch. If the elevator stays superficial to the fascia it ends up lateral to the arch.

Peterson's Principles of OMS, 3rd ed, ch 21, p 470; Rowe & Williams, vol 1, ch 12, p 476

Question 20 of 20 · TraumaA 9-year-old was hit in the eye. Upward gaze is restricted and they have nausea, vomiting and bradycardia, but little bruising. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Answer: A. Children's elastic bone favours trapdoor fractures that snap back and trap tissue. They may show few of the usual signs, but nausea and vomiting are common and bradycardia suggests the oculocardiac reflex. Severe restriction that matches the CT is a true emergency.

Peterson's Principles of OMS, 3rd ed, ch 22, pp 501–502; ch 26, p 585

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